Hi there,
I have tried without luck to solve the following problem.
The Question:
The finite region bounded by the curve y = tan(x/2), the line
x=(p/2) and the coordinate axis is
rotated through 2p radians about the
x-axis. Show that the volume generated is (p/2)×(4-p).
What I have done so far...
We know that: Vol = p ò y 2 dx
So the vol for the question is: Vol = p
ò tan
2(x/2) dx
But how do you go about integrating the previous line?
My ideas...
Do you use 1 + tan 2x = sec 2x ?
And then change it to: 1 + tan 2(x/2) = sec
2(x/2) ?
So that you get: Vol = p ò sec 2(x/2) - 1
dx,
Then once you integrate the above you get Vol = p (2tan(x/2) - x) ??
Help warmly appreciated.
Signing Out...
HAL2001
PS: Be kind, this is my 1st math related post!
Dear Hal,
You're so nearly there! You did the integral correctly, and now
just need to evaluate the result at the upper limit of integration
(i.e. x = p/2) and subtract the
expression evaluated at the lower limit of integration (i.e. x =
0). This gives you the answer you were looking for.
If you wanted to do the integral another way (or wanted to check
your answer), you could use the substitution y = tan (x/2) - try it
and see!
Please write back if you don't understand why I've done what I
have.
Best wishes
Richard
Hi Richard,
Thank you for your positive response to my problem. It is very much
appreciated!
Further progress
Firstly, Vol = p [2tan(x/2) - x]
p/2 0
Then: Vol = p [((2tan(p/4)-(p/2)) - (2tan0
-0)] as required.
Hence: p [2-(p/2)] = 2p -
(p 2/2) = (p/2) × (4 - p) as
required.
Is this OK?
Richard, could I have approached the integration
differently instead of using the identity I used?
Does there exist an easier approach to this problem?
Thanks again.
HAL2001
Hal,
Well done - that's all correct! When I tried the problem from
scratch I used the substitution y = tan(x/2) to evaluate the
integral, which gave the same answer, but was perhaps not quite as
elegant as your method. Please ask if you are not familiar with
integration by substitution.
In general with these 'volumes of revolution' questions, except in
simple cases, you are going to have to do the integral given in
your formula and my feeling about your particular question is that
while other substitutions into the integral might well give the
answer, they are unlikely to make it any easier than your
method.
One simple case where you wouldn't need to bother doing an integral
would be if the finite region were that between the positive
x-axis, the line y=x and the line x=1, and the question were to
find the volume enclosed when this region were rotated through
2p radians around the x-axis. In this
case, the volume is just that of a cone with base radius 1 unit and
'vertical' height 1 unit. Of course, if you couldn't remember the
formula for the volume of a cone, you could always do the integral
using your formula just as in your question!
I hope this helps.
Richard
Hi Richard,
Thanks for your advice. It is much appreciated. :)
I tried to do it with your sub y = tan(x/2), but I did'nt get the
same result! Is it possible for you to put your method workings
up?
Regarding the volume of a cone, to get it into the form V =
(p r2h/3), what boundary
conditions do you use? x=0 and x=h?
Regards
HAL2001
Hal,
When making a substitution into an integral, there are three things
to do:
1) Write the integrand (the expression you're integrating) in terms
of the new variable
2) Find how an infinitessimal change in the new variable is related
to an infinitessimal change in the old one (i.e. "find dx in terms
of dy")
3) Alter the limits of integration so that they apply to the new
variable.
So here we go: we want to evaluate pò0
p/2
tan2(x/2) dx by means of the substitution y =
tan(x/2).
In step 1, the integrand becomes y2. We do step 2 by
noting that
dy = 1/2 * sec2(x/2) dx = 1/2 × (1 +
tan2(x/2)) dx = 1/2 × (1 + y2)
dx.
Finally, we do step 3. When x = 0, y = 0, and when x = p/2, y = 1.
Putting all these steps together, we end up with:
Vol = 2p ò0
1 y2/(1 +
y2) dy = 2p ò0 1 1 - 1/(1 +
y2) dy.
The second term in this integral is a standard integral - it
becomes arctan y (the inverse of the tan function).
Hence the volume is
Vol = 2p[y - arctan
y]01 = 2p(1 -
p/4) = p/2 *
(4 - p), as required.
I hope this makes some sense, and that you can see where your
working differed. Finally, you're right about the boundary
conditions for the cone. You need x=0 and x=h because this gives
you the 'vertical' height of h.
Again, please write back if there's anything you don't
understand.
Best wishes
Rich
Thanks Richard,
Your method was very enlightening.
I enjoyed it very much!
The step where you integrated the arctan y, I did not remember from
memory, so I checked up in a text book.
About the volume of the cone, I put x=0 and x=h as the boundary
conditions, but got (p×h3)/3 instead of the correct
answer we expect of V = (p×r2h)/3.
Any suggestions on how I went wrong?
Best Regards
HAL2001
HAL,
I suspect you have used the equation y=x instead of the correct
equation y=rx/h in your calculation. It is quite easy to see that
you want to have y=r when x=h and y=0 when x=0, where r is the
radius of the base. In using y=x, we are having a cone with its
radius equals to its height and thus yields ph3/3.
If my suspicion is wrong, then there must be some mistakes in the
evaluation of integral....
Kerwin
Hi Kerwin,
Thanks!
I used y=rx/h and it worked out.
Regards
HAL2001