Hi, I am studying complex numbers and I found this little
question:
z is an element of C such that z/(z-i) is real. Show that z is
imaginary.
Now I think I have done it, but I am curious as to how somebody
else would do it (mainly so I can check my reasoning).
Thanks.
PAT.
Hi there!
OK, we have z in C such that z/(z-i) is real. So let's write
z = a(z-i) (where a is real, and I've multiplied each side by
z-i)
re-arranging this gives us:
z(1-a) = ai
now we know that a is real, and so, obviously, is a-1. So the RHS
is pure imaginary, and the LHS is a (real) scalar multiple of z, so
z must be pure imaginary too.
If this is the way that you did it, and are still wondering about
that argument, remember that we can look at the real and imaginary
parts of an equation separately.
If we have a + bi = c + di (a,b,c,d all real) then we know that a =
c and b = d. If, in the equation z(1-a) = ai we express z as z = x
+ iy (x, y in R), then we get
(1-a)x + (1-a)iy = ai.
Equating real and imaginary parts gives x = 0 and y = a/(1-a). So z
= ai/(1-a) which is pure imaginary.
That was a bit long winded, but I hope it has sorted everything
out!
Marion