What is the proof, please, for MacLaurin's theorum
f(x) = f(0) + f'(0)x + (f''(0)x2)/2! +
(f'''(0)x3)/3! etc
and how did MacLaurin come to discover it?
Thank you!
One way of proving MacLaurin's theorem is
as follows. This assumes that the function you are considering
actually can be expanded as a power series at all. This is a
valid assumption at
A-level, since basically all the functions you will meet can be so
expanded, but at degree level, you will meet some 'nastier'
functions which cannot.
So let's assume that
f(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2
+ a3x3 + ... + anxn +
...
going on forever.
What is the justification for this? Well, consider the sum
g(x) = 1 + x + x2 + x3 + ...
This is just a G.P., and you know how to sum those to infinity - if
you use the normal formula, you get g(x) = 1/(1-x). So the
function 1/(1-x) has a power series expansion. You can do similar
things, it turns out, with lots of other series. MAYBE you can do
it for a general function. This is a GUESS. You
don't KNOW that this is true, but you guess that it is, and then
try and prove your guess. I'll come back to this after I've proved
the result.
So we have ASSUMED that we can write, as before,
f(x) = a0 + a1x + ...
Then consider f(0). Since 01 = 02 =
03 = ... = 0, for all higher powers too, we have just
f(0) = a0.
Now differentiate once:
f'(x) = a1 + 2a2x +
3a3x2 + ...
Then in the same way, f'(0) = a{1}.
Differentiate again:
f''(x) = 2a2 + 6a3x + ...
So f''(0) = 2a2, so a2 = f''(0) / 2.
Each time you differentiate you can see that another factor gets
brought down.
Substituting these formulae for a0, a1 etc.
back into the formula, gives:
f(x) = f(0) + f'(0)x + f''(0)x2/2 + ...
as we wanted.
But I left some questions unanswered. CAN I always do this? No, I
can't. For example, if I can't differentiate the function f at 0, I
certainly can't use this result. So you can't use this e.g. for the
function f(x) = modulus(x), which means x, if x>0 and -x, if
x<0, since this has a sharp point at x=0, where there is no
well-defined gradient. Other things can also go wrong, for example
1/x is not defined at 0, so this also goes wrong. If you do a maths
degree, some of the cryptic things I've said will become a bit
clearer!
But basically, IF you assume that you can do all the things I've
done, which you certainly can e.g. for sines, cosines and
exponentials, then the result and the proof are fine!
I'm afraid I don't know the answer to how MacLaurin discovered his
result, but power series were certainly being used a lot at the
time, and he probably just happened upon it. In fact, it's quite
possible that lots of people found this result, but didn't publish
it - it just happens that for some reason MacLaurin got his name
attached to it (I don't think he did much else of interest,
although I may be wrong).
Hope this helps,
David.
There is a biography of MacLaurin on the St Andrew's History of Maths website. He seems to have done quite a bit. Newton thought well of him, and he shared a prize with Bernoulli and Euler. MacLaurin's series, however, are just a special case of Taylor's series, as MacLaurin acknowledged himself.
Dear David,
Thanks. I follow the proof and it's really neat. But I'm going to
ask you a question about it which you will probably think really
strange. It's to do with the way my mind works trying to understand
things.
Is there any way you can follow this proof conceptually? By that I
mean on a graph or in any kind of 'picture language.' You see,
while I believe the proof because there's no flaw in the logic I
still can't understand the theorem in my head. Maybe it's
the why behind the how that I'm missing.
I should warn you that when I first came across the proof that root
two is irrational, I spent about 2 weeks trying to prove it wrong
because I could not believe that such a simple set of steps
led to such a true thing.
As I said, it's an odd question. If you know any way of thinking
about it that might help, please tell me even if it doesn't
directly answer the query.
Thank you!
Alexandra